(July 19, 2013 at 12:11 am)Drich Wrote:(July 18, 2013 at 10:56 pm)MindForgedManacle Wrote: Read the article. It is essentially saying what Godschild has been saying, and is thus still damaged by my previous post, i.e that within several centuries in ancient times - where neither technology nor cultural interactions were exactly commonplace or easy - somehow all other languages died out, with just a single language being spoken by all, and yet the actual data concerning the development of languages across cultures shows nothing like this, and the idea itself was already ansurd. O-oAh, no. Maybe you should re-read the article. Because The article speaks about Prolepsis. In short prolepsis means that the information given may not be in chronological order. Understand we did not have the numbers that denote book chapter and verse till about 1500 years ago. Meaning the idea that the events described in genesis 10:37 must chronologically precede everything that happened in genesis 11 is foolishness. Why? Because again the numbers denoting book chapter and verse do not apply to the original literary writing style of the ancient Hebrews. For the did not write events by a chronicle standard. They wrote topically. Again read the article.
Ah. However, that only escapes the part of my post referring to it happening prior. But for the rest of my post, the damage is still done: the actual data regarding both the development and spread of languages supports the opposite case as put forward in the case of Genesis: there was no mass introduction of languages anywhere in the evidence. And the evidence we do have goes directly against that.
Thanks for the article by the way. Sorry for the misunderstanding!