(July 25, 2013 at 6:22 am)genkaus Wrote:(July 25, 2013 at 5:54 am)Red Celt Wrote: If objective morality exists, then there must have been a point when it went from non-existence to existence. So, then. When might that have been? Christian apologists use objective morality as "proof" that their god exists. I'm interested to see what arse-above-elbow machinations an atheist is going to use in order to do likewise.
I'd say the first objective morality came into existence sometime around 1772 BC when the Hammurabi's code was written down and thenceforth became independent of anyone's subjective opinion. Since then, there have been many other such moralities all of which have come from humans without the need for any divine intervention.
That isn't what objective morality is.
Tho' Nature, red in tooth and celt
With ravine, shriek'd against his creed
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