Why does god want to cut off women's hands?

[John V]

Unless of course his intention was to rape her and force her to submit to his whims for her entire life.

Deuteronomy 22:28-29 (NIV)

28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, 29 he shall pay her father fifty shekels[a] of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.

We've covered this one before. Some translations do not use "rape." That he seizes her could imply that, but that "they" are discovered implies it's a situation of seduction. In that society men prized virginity in a potential bride. The man in this case was forced to pay the father the bride price. Note that the father was not forced to give up the girl to the man. But, if he chose to, the man was forced to support her for life. The passage is a protection for women, not a punishment of them.

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So when the bible endorses slavery, that's god "trying" to steer us right regarding human rights? Or was the bible written by people, meaning that humans falsely purported to have god's word, and god did nothing to correct that?

And before you go new testament on me, that endorses slavery too.

Consider what Jesus said regarding divorce - it was not ideal, but because of the hardness of their hearts, it was permitted. You therefore cannot conclude that because a practice was permitted by the law, God sees it as ideal.