(September 30, 2013 at 2:05 am)Esquilax Wrote:How do I know the meaning? Because I have read the text.(September 30, 2013 at 12:52 am)Drich Wrote: I do indeed.
that however does not change the fact that the denotation of verse 9 and it content places what Christ said in verse 9 at the cross roads that ties the parable to its intended meaning.
And just how the fuck do you know what the intended meaning was? The author has been dead for many, many years before you were even born, and as Min just reminded you, you're reading a translation of a translation of a facsimile of edited copies of a work written in a dead language long before there was such a thing as competent record keeping. And yet somehow, you know the intended meaning, despite never speaking with the person doing the intending, and lo and behold, miracle of miracles, it manages to fall precisely in line with what you want it to be?
You're getting worse at this, man.
The text is not a translation of a translation, that is a popular misconception. It is a singular translation from a koine Greek text.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm...c=11&t=KJV
Tap on the tools bar next to the verse and you can have the orginal Greek words. Tap on the Greek words in the submenu and you can have the definitions.