The question that makes fundies hostile

[Ben Davis]

The biblical context of slavery is "harm minimisation" of an EXISTING practical reality - not an endorsement of it.

So why isn't the biblical context 'abolition'? That would not only minimise the harm but eradicate it. We are talking about the 'omnipotent' christian god here; surely this would be well within his power. Certainly any infringement on the right to self-determination impinges on our our ability to practice free will (a key factor in our salvation) so I'd have thought that god would be in favour of abolition. There are ways to minimise the harm of cutural practices whilst simultaneously seeking their resolution. Why didn't god come up with means that address both ends? If we humans, in all our frailties, can recognise the immorality of slavery, why didn't god?

To say that the bible supports slavery is like saying that government funded safe injecting rooms for heroin users amounts to...encouraging people to use heroin.

Not quite an accurate analogy. This is exactly the type of approach that I referred to above: the government is trying to end drug use whilst simultaneously recognising that users are generally victims who need support if resolution is to be effective. This type of multi-pronged approach is common in human government. If it's within the ken of mortal man, I'd expect much more from an omnipotent god.