"The bible test" Answered.

[Drich]

Again this was not the question. Which is the last of the commandments- not which is the least. No wonder you are doing so badly here - your reading comprehension is as bad as your writing.

If you can admit there is not order of importance there is no 'last commandment.' Because if there is no order then anyone can freely compile them in any order they wish so long as they do not change the content or number of the questions.

A commandment is an order given directly from God. as in the 10 commandments, because they were written by the hand of God onto stone. The laws concerning social order/how to raise a son was a law given by moses. Hence the law of moses.
The laws of moses while inspired by God was not given directly by God.
Therefore not a command. The Story of the prodigal son however was given by God.
God the Son does indeed have the authority to change how we are to deal with a rebellious son.

Erm......bullshit (the bit in bold). The laws of Moses were not commands? Where do you get this shit from? You think Mosaic law was optional at the time?

straw man, take the time to read what was written and try it again.

If the test is limited by multiple choice and the complete answer is not in the bank of answers you have to choose from then that makes the question a trick question!!!

No - that just means you choose the best fit answer - have you never completed a multiple choice exam?

No, you just correct the test if the answers are completely wrong. What school did you go to that forced conformity to the point of bending minds to accept wrong answers? In the states we do not punish for not always coloring in the lines.

Say what? You are now saying God's first version of creation was a fuck up. Perfect God needs 2 goes to get the earth right? You are just making this stuff up as you go along aren't you?

what are you talking about? You are just making this stuff up as you go along aren't you?

He lost intentionally? Of course he did.

Again stupid or just plain obstinate? The JUDGES were Judements levied against the Jews by God! Both books ARE FILLED With God Leading the Jews into battle and making the intentionally loose. The books of Judges is one example after another after another of a cycle of Sin, Defeat, repentance, deliverance, then sin, defeat in battle, then repentance and so on.

Therefore it stands to reason the example in Judges 1 was the first example of this.

How can you be a jew and not know this?

Define Omni-present. If God is everywhere all at once where does He live? Everywhere all at once. My answer is not 'evasive.' It makes you Think beyond the boundries of your question.

A, Its not my question.

i did not answer your question I answered the question posted in the test.

B, This is coming from the Bible isn't it.

Actually my answer does.

"καρδία" means heart in Greek. Don't play that game with me - I live here for fuck's sakes.

Where do you live that speaks Koine Greek?

Jesus is talking about your physical heart.

Uh, no. not even close.

He shows in the quote that he has no understanding of medicine or the human body - or rather exactly the understanding that was prevalent at the time. Whilst he could be talking about a person's centre in much the same way we do that argument is totally undermined by "Do you not see that whatever goes into a person from outside cannot defile him, 19 since it enters not his heart but his stomach, and is expelled?”[f] (Thus he declared all foods clean.) "

Now keep reading sport:
20 And he said, “What comes out of a person is what defiles him. 21 For from within, out of the heart of man, come evil thoughts, sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery, 22 coveting, wickedness, deceit, sensuality, envy, slander, pride, foolishness. 23 All these evil things come from within, and they defile a person.”

So it is your opinion that Jesus said all of the above mentioned comes from your physical blood pump?
Because contextually to me Christ is refering to the secondary meaning to the word:centre of all physical and spiritual life
the vigour and sense of physical life
the centre and seat of spiritual life
the soul or mind, as it is the fountain and seat of the thoughts, passions, desires, appetites, affections, purposes, endeavours
of the understanding, the faculty and seat of the intelligence
of the will and character
of the soul so far as it is affected and stirred in a bad way or good, or of the soul as the seat of the sensibilities, affections, emotions, desires, appetites, passions

http://atheistforums.org/thread-14912-pa...t=Jephthah

Start at post 56, and then please re-reference question #8 for precidence.

Avoided the question a second time I see.

i see you failed to read the required reference material to warrant your continued participation in this discussion.

Why the reticence to say foreskin?

why the obsession over foreskin?
(To answer your question: To give you an oppertunity to not obsess over foreskin, and still get the answer to your question)

No, you haven't. You are debating whether it says children, boy, lad, servant, youth, retainer or servant without addressing what happened to them? Is it OK if it was servants teasing Elisha when the bears came out and ripped them to shreds?

Yes.

OK - I will grant you that God didn't do the torturing - he let Satan do it. You've made up the bit about God protecting Job from experiencing Satan's full wrath.

Satan wanted to kill Job. Did Job die?

Now the question, properly qualified should be changed to: "What was the reason God allowed Job to be tortured by Satan?"
And no doubt you think that makes God come out better.

I just skimmed through all 42 chapters of Job just to answer this question correctly and accuratly.

The first thing we need to note is God did not torment job as the 'test question' implies. God placed a hedge or shield around Job protecting him. When tested God simply removed Job's shield. Satan tormented Job just to see if he would break. Which is the proof that Satan is Evil. If Saten were not he could have blessed Job, but it was in his heart to break job with torment, and loss.

The second reason I see for the trial of job was found in the response of his friends and wife. They assumed for 20 some odd chapters that Job did something wrong and accused/guessed at what he did so he would confess. When in truth (via this book) God does not punish the wicked in this life. Bad things happen to good people, because that is what happens in this life. (We do not live under the full protection of God. We are therefore subject to Evil and consenquences of evil and the evil one.)

So why did God allow for Job's torment?
To show the rest of us that we are not living under God's roof yet and therefore not under His full protection. This means Good is not always rewarded and evil is not always punished. Sometimes Good people are made to endure hardship and evil people live easy.. for a time.

You are reading way more into the question that there is. There is no mention of relative values. It just asks what the value of a woman is.

This question what was the value of a woman, it did not ask the value of a man, Men were sold along side women at that time to ask the price of one and not give a nod to the fact that the other was also sold is misleading.

Because a woman's rape was treated differently in the NT verses the OT.
http://www.gotquestions.org/Bible-rape.html

Again though - not the question.

The question can not be answered as stated because a time reference is needed to frame the response. If a woman under the conditions of the question was raped in the OT the responce would be "A" if She was raped as a Christian the answer would be completely different.

Because there is no time reference the question can not be accuratly answered given the choices provided.