"The bible test" Answered.

[xpastor]

Actually Jesus did claim divinity in john 10 when He said I and my Father are one.

Actually - that is not true - in the least - and is a direct problem of a translated text - failing to account for idioms of the original language.

In the terms of the languages of the supposed time of the christ - and many also today - when Caesar said that he was ONE with the Roman senate - it meant that he agreed with them. It is a common idiom for agreement - used in many languages to this day. Certainly Caesar did not mean that he and the roman senate were the same person!!!!! You can find the use of this idiom in lots of texts from all over the earth.

You rarely find your claim in countries that still use the idiom - and YOU can verify the Idiom in the many on line idiom dictionaries.

In fact - the mythology of the christ always refers to the father as another - and the father refers to the son as another as well. And the claim that they were the same person begs the question - why did the christ - on the cross - refer to his father - "Why have YOU forsaken me? - when if they were the same person - he should have said - why have I forsaken myself!!!!

Good point about the idiom—I am one with = I am in agreement with.

I don't think Jesus the man really claimed to be God or even claimed to be the apocalyptic figure of the Son of Man, who would supposedly come to judge the world.

However, John's gospel certainly makes claims for his divinity, in the prologue if nowhere else.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God ... And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us.

Of course the majority scholarly opinion is that this was written about 65 years after Jesus; death by we know not whom.