(January 9, 2014 at 10:02 pm)xpastor Wrote:(January 8, 2014 at 9:54 am)rightcoaster Wrote: ... Do you say that the original group, the very first followers, the mostly Galilean Jews, those who invented and spread the resurrection story, ascribed divinity to Jesus?
No, I don't think there are any divinity claims emanating from the historical Jesus. I don't think he even thought of himself as the Son of Man. The three synoptic gospels do have a few traces of deifying JC and certainly of having him claim to be the Son of Man. However, I doubt that comes from the original disciples.
"Son of man" ... what meaneth it????
Ezekiel 3:
"1And He said unto me: ‘Son of man, eat that which thou findest;... 3And He said unto me: ‘Son of man, cause thy belly to eat,
4And He said unto me: ‘Son of man, go, get thee unto the house of Israel, ...
10Moreover He said unto me: ‘Son of man, all My words ..."
Tehillim (Psalms) 8:
...
5. what is man that You should remember him, and the son of man that You should be mindful of him?
ה. מָה אֱנוֹשׁ כִּי תִזְכְּרֶנּוּ וּבֶן אָדָם כִּי תִפְקְדֶנּוּ: ..."
Ezekiel 28:
2. "Son of man, say to the prince of Tyre: So said the Lord God: Because your heart is proud, and you said, 'I am a god, I have sat in a seat of God, in the heart of the seas,' but you are a man and not a god, yet you have made your heart like the heart of God.
And there are other uses of "ben adam" in the Tanakh. So what if Jesus did or did not, or his immediate followers did or did not, use the phrase? Master, or "lord" (adon), are also likely ascriptions. Not any of them has any connection with divinity whatsoever, ditto mashiakh (anointed one).
