The first Christians weren't Bible Christians

[Aractus]

In ACTS 15 the Apostles made a decision as the Church Authority (Bishops) that believers could sport uncircumcised penis's.

That decision totally contradicted all the scriptures of the time. The Apostles were not Solascriptura.

No, it contradicted Judaism. If you go back to before Moses then the ancient Israelites had not yet received the Law of Moses, and this is why:

Galations 3:

• O foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you? It was before your eyes that Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified. Let me ask you only this: Did you receive the Spirit by works of the law or by hearing with faith? Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh? Did you suffer so many things in vain—if indeed it was in vain? Does he who supplies the Spirit to you and works miracles among you do so by works of the law, or by hearing with faith—just as Abraham “believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”?
  
  Know then that it is those of faith who are the sons of Abraham. And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “In you shall all the nations be blessed.” So then, those who are of faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith.

Romans 4:

• What then shall we say was gained by Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh? For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness, just as David also speaks of the blessing of the one to whom God counts righteousness apart from works:
  
  • “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,
    and whose sins are covered;
    blessed is the man against whom the Lord will not count his sin.”
  Is this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness. How then was it counted to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised. He received the sign of circumcision as a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised, so that righteousness would be counted to them as well, and to make him the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.

It's an early doctrine, but it's not solely invented by Paul (or for that matter Peter). In any case, they'd received the New Covenant, which is summed up by Paul in 1 Cor 15.

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Anyway, truth be told, I don't know how much more help I can be on this subject my knowledge of early church history certainly isn't as good or detailed as some people. But at least it isn't the incorrect version taught by the RCC or Muslims!