About other gods-question for theists

[Jenny A]

Well the Bible is external to you. No doubt about that. And it certainly says god exists. But given the fact that it also says the world was created in six days and that there is essentially no historical corroboration for anything in it except bits of Kings and Chronicles, I wouldn't count it as evidence. Is the Book of the Dead evidence of Ra?

You're changing the conversation here. I'm clarifying that I didn't "look inside" to determine the truth, but rather was acted upon by an outside force. Are you denying that the Bible is something external to myself?

Nope just that it's evidence of god. You have no external evidence unless the Bible is evidence. And frankly it isn't. It's just a book of myth. Reread my response which you so kindly quoted.

For example, please explain when Jesus was actually born since Matthew claims that Jesus was born during the reign of Herod the Great but Luke claims that Jesus was born during the census of Quirinius (6-7 CE) which is ten years after Herod died in 4 BCE. Was he born twice?

Has been addressed.

Really? Where? Note my response to Lek below.

The genealogies for Jesus in Mathew and Luke are so different that they hardly contain a single name in common. Further both are through Joseph which makes no sense at all if Jesus were born of a virgin. --apologists suggest that one of those genealogies was Mary's but that's not what either gospel says.

/AllegedDiscrepancies.aspx?article=932]Alleged genealogy discrepancy[/url]

Does not address why it's Joseph's line, rather than Mary's given the virgin birth. Also really lame. Really, really lame. The Bible does not use the female line anywhere else for a man's genealogy. Why start here with Joseph's?

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Name one prophesy clearly stated in the Old Testament and fulfilled in the New Testament. Give me the verses.

Okay, let's look at what Daniel had to say and when he is supposed have said it:

Daniel 9:1-2

So this prophesy was made during the Babylonian captivity. After much prayer concerning the misfortunes of Israel and the times god had both rewarded and punished Daniel, Gabriel came to Daniel and said:


I've italicized the part you say was fulfilled in the New Testament.

You better explain just what you think this means. I don't think it in anyway clearly describes Jesus' coming and I'd like to know why you think it does. Or maybe you think it's John the Baptist? But supposing just for argument the Jesus is the "Anointed One": 7 sevens is 49 and 62 sevens is 434 bringing us to a total of 496. If that's 496 years, the Anointed one showed up way too soon after the beginning of the restoration of Jerusalem. If sevens mean weeks than it's 69 weeks (a little more than a year), than the Annointed One was very late.

Then again maybe it's not time at all. Whatever it is it's not very clear.

Jesus was put to death. But I wouldn't say he had nothing afterwords. Would you? There's been war since, but not especially more than there was before the prophesy.

The point is that it's all about as clear as mud. Worse than a horoscope.

"...from the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until Messiah the Prince there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks; it will be built again, with plaza and moat, even in times of distress. Then after the sixty-two weeks the Messiah will be cut off..."
[Hide]
Nehemiah 2:1 states the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem occurred in the month of Nissan in the twentieth year of the reign of the Persian king, Artaxerxes. Encyclopedia Britannica says Artaxerxes Longimanus took the Persian throne in July of 465 BC. So his twentieth year began in July of 445 BC. The month of Nissan following that would have been in March of 444 BC, which was before the twenty-first anniversary of Artaxerxes' reign. The seven weeks, or 49 years, ran from Artaxerxes; decree to the year Jerusalem's wall and moat were finished in the period of Ezra and Nehemiah. From that time another 62 weeks went by until the Messiah was "cut off," a term meaning "put to death."

That's from Old Testament to Old Testament, not Old to New.

In the book "ON the Weeks and This Prophecy," in fragment 16 Julius Africanus shows how to make the calculation. He says that the "70 weeks" prophecy of Daniel 9 started when Artaxerxes gave the decree in his twentieth year. Years later, Sir Robert Anderson recreated the conversion process for our modern calendar as follows: There are 69 X 7 years until the Messiah's death (483 years)http://www.aboutbibleprophecy.com/weeks.htm

The prophesy doesn't tell us when to start counting.

Many people have proposed different years for different decrees. And I won't pretend to have the "only correct answer," because I don't know if I have that or not. In any event, here are four decrees that are often discussed in relation to Daniel 9:24-26:

1. The decree from Cyrus in 539 BC. (see Ezra 1:1-4)

2. The decree from Darius in 519 BC. (see Ezra 5:3-7)

3. The decree from Artaxerxes to Ezra in 457 BC. (see Ezra 7:11-16)

4. The decree from Artaxerxes to Nehemiah in 444 BC. (see Nehemiah 2:1-8)

http://www.aboutbibleprophecy.com/weeks.htm

In other words, clear as mud.

We convert from the Jewish/prophetic calendar to the Gregorian/Roman calendar this way: We take the 483 years times 360 days per year (the sacred Jewish calendar) and that comes to 173,880. On the modern calender that comes out to 476 years and 21 days. March 14, 444 BC plus 476 years comes out to March 14, AD 31. We add one year because there was no "0" year, then add the 21 days. April 6, AD 32.
For more info and view points you can go to:
carm.org
Apologetics Press

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