About other gods-question for theists

[Jenny A]

I don't think they are merely "alleged discrepancies." Most of them were not discovered by atheists but by theologians during the middle ages. So it's clear that anyone reading the Bible can see them. So? Are they explained by the apologists? I don't think so. Mostly the apologists require us to take a highly unlikely or convoluted reading of the text to arrive at that determination.

Are the genealogies factual within the explanation given?

Yep. The genealogies clearly are stated to be of Joseph, not Mary, and they do not match. Further, Joseph was not, according to the Bible, Jesus' father.

Besides, if the solution were obvious because there was no contradiction, then the apologists ought to agree on the solution. But, alas they do not agree.

Is your viewpoint that truth is defined only by complete consensus?

Certainly not. But for many Biblical contradictions there not only isn't complete consensus, there is complete disarray. If there were a good answers, surely in the almost 2000 years since the gospels were written, some kind of a consensus would have emerged.

I repeat. For no other document, would you go to such great lengths to avoid obvious errors and contradictions. So why not excuse the Koran in a similar manner?