RE: About other gods-question for theists
July 8, 2014 at 2:32 pm
(This post was last modified: July 8, 2014 at 2:36 pm by Jenny A.)
(July 8, 2014 at 1:36 pm)orangebox21 Wrote:There's no evidence that it was. The Hebrews may not have had a word for son-in-law, but the Greeks did and the the Gospels were written in Greek.(July 7, 2014 at 11:43 pm)Jenny A Wrote: Yep. The genealogies clearly are stated to be of Joseph, not Mary, and they do not match. Further, Joseph was not, according to the Bible, Jesus' father.Was Heli the name of Mary's father?
(July 8, 2014 at 1:36 pm)orangebox21 Wrote: Joseph was Jesus' father legally though as you have stated not biologically.
Not legally either because not biologically. And frankly, not for purposes of prophesy, which would be the point.
(July 8, 2014 at 1:36 pm)orangebox21 Wrote:(July 7, 2014 at 11:43 pm)Jenny A Wrote: Certainly not. But for many Biblical contradictions there not only isn't complete consensus, there is complete disarray.
By complete disarray are you proposing that no two theologians/apologists agree on any issue?
(July 7, 2014 at 11:43 pm)Jenny A Wrote: If there were a good answers, surely in the almost 2000 years since the gospels were written, some kind of a consensus would have emerged.
Why?
Because where there are reasonable answers, like minded reasonable people tend to agree.
But, I repeat. Would you do this kind of mental gymnastics to show that any other book was without contradictions? If not, why not? If so which book? The point being that it's all special pleading for the Bible beginning with the supposition that the Bible can't be wrong.
If there is a god, I want to believe that there is a god. If there is not a god, I want to believe that there is no god.