Should man rule over women for women’s own good?

[Esquilax]

When paul says 1 Timothy 2:12 NIV

I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet. He is not being sexist or anything like it. To understand you have to look at ths context. At the time Paul said this women were mostly illiterate and unlearned, Paul is saying that women can only be allowed to teach if the are taught first.

Then maybe he should have actually said that, rather than not saying it and hoping that centuries later people would somehow leap to the conclusion that the thing he actually meant was something absolutely not hinted at in the text.

Also why would Paul teach women tp pray and prophesy in church(1 Corithians 11:5) if he meant them to be silent.

Because Corinthians and Timothy are completely different books, both are pseudepigraphic and not written by Paul, and the anonymous authors weren't smart enough to consider internal consistency between works?

Paul also critises men at the time for keeping women from an education. Furthermore in Ephesus were Timothy taught, there was a pagan cult worshipping the pagan God Artemis. This worship was lead by priestesses, this is also what Paul refers to when he says women should be silent.

How hard is it to write what you mean, seriously? Do you honestly expect us to believe that this stuff is just written super vague, and that only you, a guy who doesn't know the author and can tell us nothing about his intent, somehow knows what's up?