(May 19, 2015 at 8:45 am)Nestor Wrote:(May 18, 2015 at 11:45 pm)Wyrd of Gawd Wrote: All "J" words were created after 1633. Therefore if you ever see a manuscript with a "J" word in it that was supposedly written before 1633 it's a fake. "Jesus" didn't exist before 1633. If Tacitus used any word with a "J" in it then the document is a fake.That's one hell of a strawman if I ever saw one. Obviously when people speak of older texts they don't expect the writer to have used modern English. Here's what the word "Jesus" would have looked like in other languages:
http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus_%28name%29
@Kitan
I think Min gets ignored, not because of his radical position that often seems motivated by anti-Christian sentiment rather than sincere and rational analysis, but due to the fact that he kind of acts like a screaming, petulant child.
Thanks for verifying that the Jesus character is imaginary and that he was created in the 17th Century. If he had been an actual person with all of his reputed attributes there wouldn't have been any reason whatsoever to change his name. After all, the fairy tale still uses some of the ancient ethnocentric names for the minor characters. Every time someone says "Jesus" in reference to the guy in the New Testament they are appealing to an imaginary character. If he really existed he's going to be very pissed off on Judgment Day. Calling the guy "Jesus" is like calling God "Spit Bucket".