(May 30, 2015 at 3:24 pm)Stimbo Wrote: If the question doesn’t involve gods or entities of equal distinction, atheism - let alone "Atheism" - has nothing to do with it. Why is this so hard to grasp for you?
"You do take my house when you do take the proper which doth sustain my house. You do take my life when you do take the means whereby I live." - Shakespeare Merchant of Venice.
Thus, if your disbelief is based on lack of "proof" and the name of that disbelief is called Atheism so might I attribute the prop (lproof) that sustains your house (disbelief) as part of your house (disbelief) by calling it Atheistic.
Possible responses to your particular question:
1. Just as atheists tend to say theist apply god in everything so to might a theist say atheist apply atheism in everything.
2. Just as atheists call a theist bias for applying one set of requirements for god and another for not god so to might theist call atheists bias.
3. Just as atheists will not accept a theist answer of because for belief in god so to might a theist not accept because for atheists disbelief.
4. Just as atheists will critique theist reasons for belief by application to non-theist entities so might a theist do the same for atheist disbelief.
As I said earlier, "This villainy you teach me I will execute!! And it shall go hard, but I will better the instruction!!"
To continue along the vein of the Merchant of Venice, "Until you can rail the seal from off my bond thou but offend'st thy lungs to speak so loud. Repair thy wit, good youth, or it will fall to cureless ruin." I stand here for proof!!
