(June 9, 2015 at 9:18 pm)Randy Carson Wrote:In answer to your question... Most of those first and last scriptures in revelation are referring to Jesus christ. The only one that refers to god from my recollection is the one towards the end where it also uses the phrase alpha and omega.(June 7, 2015 at 11:37 pm)nicanica123 Wrote: Well if Catholics are the biggest perpetrators of false christianity then I guess god would have the greatest animusn towards them. Can you at least respond to the fact that Jesus often refers to himself as an inferior to God? Or what about in Daniel where Nebuchadnezzar is referred to king of kings, and then in Revelation Jesus is called the king of kings. Does this make Nebuchadnezzar Jesus Christ? The same title is used?
In His humanity, Jesus was inferior to God. The challenge in understanding these passages is to figure out what Jesus did and did not know as man versus as God. However, the Son is begotten of the Father - not the other way around. So, although the Father, Son and Holy Spirit share the same divine nature as one God, the Father does have a sort of pre-eminence.
Regarding Nebuchadnezzer, yes, DANIEL refers to the him as the "king of kings" in the following:
Daniel 2:36-38
36 “This was the dream, and now we will interpret it to the king. 37 Your Majesty, you are the king of kings. The God of heaven has given you dominion and power and might and glory; 38 in your hands he has placed all mankind and the beasts of the field and the birds in the sky. Wherever they live, he has made you ruler over them all. You are that head of gold.
However, you will notice that Daniel refers to GOD separately in the same verse. Ol' Nebby was powerful among human kings, but not God. In Revelation, it is Jesus, the Lamb of God, (cf. John 1) who is the final, ultimate King of kings.
Revelation 17:14
14 They will wage war against the Lamb, but the Lamb will triumph over them because he is Lord of lords and King of kings—and with him will be his called, chosen and faithful followers.”
Now, did I miss your answer to my question? If so, in which post did you answer the question about when God died?
How come when Daniel refers to god separately to Nebby its ok but the dozens of times that Jesus himself refers to god as a separate being it does't make sense to you? How could Jesus say that he doesn't even act on his own will but the fathers? How come he asked god to forgive the sinners? How come he asked god to remove the cup if he could do so? So, is it reasonable to conclude that a few cherry picked scriptures should be taken more absolute than Jesus own words? I personally don't believe so. Another prophecy in Daniel is about the ancient of days giving the keys to the kingdom to the son of man. As far as I know, this is a heavenly prophecy. I would assume that Jehovah is the ancient of days and Jesus is the son of man. Paul also mentions god making Jesus the king of his kingdom.
Also, if you believe that John 1:1 is more accurately translated "was god" then why didn't the translator for the KJV also translate that Judas was "a devil" in John 6:70 when the same indefinite article is used? Shouldn't that verse have been translate, one of you is the devil? And then we could reasonably conclude that Judas is actually Satan? I am sorry, but for me that is lacking.
Also, if you juxtapose John 1:1 to a to Psalm 82 where the Judges of Israel were called gods. Does this make them Jehovah as well?
