RE: the slippery "F" word - my solution
October 17, 2010 at 6:18 pm
(This post was last modified: October 17, 2010 at 6:26 pm by Anomalocaris.)
If there are two different wave lengths of light that would be perceived by people with normal color receptors in the eye and no special indoctrination in conceptualizing color to be of two different colors, could indoctrination from birth cause a person with normal eyes to no longer be able to perceive difference at all between these two colors? Not just think the difference between these two colors makes no difference, but really unable to perceive any difference despite differing input for them from the retina?
If this is the case, then obstacle would be more than linguistic. A tool to plot the wave length can still remove the obstacle, but that analogue of wavelength plotter is not always available, and it's efficacy can be thwarted in principle by exactly same type of indoctrination.
If this is the case, then obstacle would be more than linguistic. A tool to plot the wave length can still remove the obstacle, but that analogue of wavelength plotter is not always available, and it's efficacy can be thwarted in principle by exactly same type of indoctrination.
