(May 1, 2018 at 7:18 pm)Kit Wrote:(May 1, 2018 at 7:13 pm)Anomalocaris Wrote: No, humanness is defined by all human behavior, not a subset of subjectively pleasing human behavior. A human could no more be less human than he could be less a part of the universe.
How would you describe a human disposed by common sense to act irrationally?
Certainly human, of course, but certainly less than human.
Really? How is either rationality or irrationality more human than the other?
To say one human is more human than another implies humanness is a set of independently conceived specifications and actual humans are but products produced to fulfill the specification. I would think humanness is descriptive, not proscriptive.