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Objective morality as a proper basic belief
#54
RE: Objective morality as a proper basic belief
(June 24, 2017 at 3:13 pm)RoadRunner79 Wrote:   It is saying that X is immoral regardless of the person.  That the basis or standard for what is moral or immoral is independent of the person (culture or time).  That the morality of the action in question doesn't change based on the individual (or societies) particular view, taste, or preference for that action. 
That's moral absolutism, not moral objectivism.  An objective morality -can- include objectively true things about particular moral agents, particular times, and particular cultures. In fact it -has- to...or it isn't meaningfully objective.

An objective morality, as opposed to an absolutist morality, can tell you, for example..that it would be bad™ to do some thing x in one scenario...but not bad™ or even good™ in another. Particularly in that the act is only bad if it meets the objective -conditions- for being bad...the same act in different conditions will not support the same moral conclusions.

It would be bad™ for example..for me to loot here, today, in my hometown. It was -not- bad™ for a russian to loot, in stalingrad, during ww2. Only in an absolutist morality can something be bad no matter who does it, where, or when.

In my experience (big disclaimer), religious nutters are moral absolutists (except when god does it, ofc)...not moral objectivists. See what religious nuttery does to people? Even when you identify some way that people are actually mistaken (alot of these supposed moral subjectivists describe a distinctly objective moral system)...you;'re compelled to pile further error atop that in order to "educate" them.
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Messages In This Thread
RE: Objective morality as a proper basic belief - by The Grand Nudger - June 24, 2017 at 3:48 pm

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