RE: Objective morality as a proper basic belief
July 12, 2017 at 10:33 am
(This post was last modified: July 12, 2017 at 10:53 am by The Grand Nudger.)
Another wonderful question, accidentally touched upon by our resident liar for christ.
What -is- gods plan, and how does one distinguish between items of The Plan of the being with "perfect moral qualities", and shit that just happens? It seems like it would be easy to do, but I possess an objective moral schema. It's obviously much more difficult for those that don't, or for those that can't even comprehend what that is. It leaves those people scrambling about "the common good" when the perfect moral being does something so plainly immoral that an argument is required to redeem it. Now, I don't mind those people borrowing my moral schema (obviously I think it's a good one)....but they could at least acknowledge that they've done so.
Adding another question to the pile. What, exactly, is the point or impetus of all this nonsense? Is god or gods goodness somehow -diminished- by it's perfect adherence to an objective standard of morality? How could that possibly be the case? If god is perfectly good, apart from it's own subjective plan, or any subjective invocation of it's nature.....wouldn't that be a good thing?
If the goal is an objective morality, what utility is there in referring to the moral -subject- of a god? How is this any different than referring to the moral -subject- of any given human being?
What -is- gods plan, and how does one distinguish between items of The Plan of the being with "perfect moral qualities", and shit that just happens? It seems like it would be easy to do, but I possess an objective moral schema. It's obviously much more difficult for those that don't, or for those that can't even comprehend what that is. It leaves those people scrambling about "the common good" when the perfect moral being does something so plainly immoral that an argument is required to redeem it. Now, I don't mind those people borrowing my moral schema (obviously I think it's a good one)....but they could at least acknowledge that they've done so.
Adding another question to the pile. What, exactly, is the point or impetus of all this nonsense? Is god or gods goodness somehow -diminished- by it's perfect adherence to an objective standard of morality? How could that possibly be the case? If god is perfectly good, apart from it's own subjective plan, or any subjective invocation of it's nature.....wouldn't that be a good thing?
If the goal is an objective morality, what utility is there in referring to the moral -subject- of a god? How is this any different than referring to the moral -subject- of any given human being?
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