RE: God's Child(ren)?
November 2, 2010 at 12:30 pm
(This post was last modified: November 2, 2010 at 12:32 pm by theophilus.)
(October 30, 2010 at 8:40 pm)Minimalist Wrote:I provided a link to an article that explains the reason for this.Quote:THERE IS NO FUCKING MARY IN THERE, THEO...CAN'T YOU READ?
Quote:It mentions Joseph and not Mary but this article explains the reason for it:Can't you read?
Quote:Breaking up genealogies into male and female representations was acceptable in the ancient Near East culture since it was often impolite to speak of women without proper conditions being met: male presence, etc. Therefore, one genealogy is of Mary and the other of Joseph--even though both mention Joseph. In other words, the Mary geneaology was counted "in" Joseph and under his headship.
http://carm.org/bible-difficulties/matth...and-luke-3
To really understand this you should read the whole article.
His invisible attributes, namely, his eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived, ever since the creation of the world, in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse.
Romans 1:20 ESV
Romans 1:20 ESV