Objective morality: how would it affect your judgement/actions?

[The Grand Nudger]

 Why would that be a problem?  Why would something being related to or pursuant to a value judgement be barred from being a fact?  Cant a value judgement be based on a measurement?  Aren't all measurements based in standards?

A measurement is independent upon my reading, someone else can make a measurement and come to the same measurement as I've measured. Not so for value judgements, my red cannot ever be your red. My "murder is wrong" isn't a measurement in the same sense as something being "red", at least, I think so.

Are you sure?  Is the measurement that slavery or murder causes harm dependent on your reading?  If you didn't take the reading, and someone else did, there might be no harm to detect?

Is the harm caused by either of those things merely an artifact of your subjective experience? Nothing to dso with the people involved..the slaves, for example? No means to test whether or not they've been palpably harmed? No long term projections, no lasting effects, no assessments of the arc of history or economy? No way to know whether or not a murder victim was harmed?

We both talk about red because we both observe light in that range, and we have a common language to describe what we perceive. There is a fact of red (there are many, in truth..but for simplicity's sake ). Are there no similar facts of murder and slavery? Is there no similar fact of harm?

Moral realism is alot simpler than most people think. It takes some moral statement at face value, concedes that it does purport to report a fact - something about some x that makes it wrong, and that -if- that something is factual, then the moral statement is a factual moral statement.