Another law thread

[Drich]

I don't have to, verses 28+29 did that just fine...
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could you explain?

[catfish]

Of course, any Christian knows that the Hebrews and Romans passages refer to this anyways...

Jeremiah 31:33-34
New International Version (NIV)

33 “This is the covenant I will make with the people of Israel
after that time,” declares the Lord.
“I will put my law in their minds
and write it on their hearts.
I will be their God,
and they will be my people.
34 No longer will they teach their neighbor,
or say to one another, ‘Know the Lord,’
because they will all know me,
from the least of them to the greatest,”
declares the Lord.
“For I will forgive their wickedness
and will remember their sins no more.”

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No, I can't explain because I am under the New Covenant. I no longer have to teach my neighbor (even if you don't consider me a neighbor).
.

[Drich]

Of course, any Christian knows that the Hebrews and Romans passages refer to this anyways...

Jeremiah 31:33-34
New International Version (NIV)

33 “This is the covenant I will make with the people of Israel
after that time,” declares the Lord.
“I will put my law in their minds
and write it on their hearts.
I will be their God,
and they will be my people.
34 No longer will they teach their neighbor,
or say to one another, ‘Know the Lord,’
because they will all know me,
from the least of them to the greatest,”
declares the Lord.
“For I will forgive their wickedness
and will remember their sins no more.”

---

No, I can't explain because I am under the New Covenant. I no longer have to teach my neighbor (even if you don't consider me a neighbor).
.

So now could you explain how Heb 8 and Jer31 works with Romans 2?

[catfish]

Who are your neighbors?
.

[Drich]

Who are your neighbors?
.

Before we can know who the "neighbors" are we must first seek the context of the passage in order to determine who is being addressed. In Hebrews 8 it is the Jewish people starting at verse 10:
. 10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws in their mind and write them on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 11 None of them shall teach his neighbor, and none his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for all shall know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them.

The word in the Greek for neighbor here is: plēsion Which can mean every living being on the planet as Christ himself used the word. But in the more conventional sense it can simply mean countrymen. Now remember in Hebrews 8 Christ isn't speaking, nor are we speaking of a new precept where neighbors are to mean everyone. how do we know this for certain? (As you were so good to point out) This passage in Hebrews 8 is a throw back (word for word) to Jer 31:33 & 34 In that passage the word for neighbor in the Hebrew is: רע rea` Which is limited to country men in the broad usage of the term and close friends on the personal side.

So to answer your question, after weighing all the contextual evidence:
1) A passage in a book writen specifically to the Hebrew church
2) To a Passage that was a full fillment of Hebrew prophecy
3)To the greek word that supports the broad sense of the term in which it was orginally used in the Hebrew to mean a Jewish country men.
4)To the Orginal incarnation of this word found in Jer 31:34 that again only points to "country men" as a shared or collective meaning.

Any reasonable person would say that Neighbor speaks specifically to another Jew, as the on page context of the message would indicate.

Now if you are done asking me questions it is time for you to answer a few. I still want to know what romans 2 and Hebrews 8 and nor Jer 31 all have to do with each other?

If you are quite done with your posturing, and hoping google will give you something of use, you can ask me to help you answer that question. (If you do not know)

If you think you do then by all means let's hold your explaination to the light of scripture and see what stays together. However if you wish to challenge what i have written here then know you will need to bring reference material, and not some rehash of some commentary you read after doing another search.

[catfish]

Good Samaritan... Not a Jew, but Yeshua was clear in that message...
.

[Drich]

Good Samaritan... Not a Jew, but Yeshua was clear in that message...
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Did you not read what I wrote? Go back and read it again. I addressed Jesus' usage of the word and how we know that is not the intended meaning here.

[catfish]

No Drich, I want you to explain you how they aren't all related. It's more fun that way.
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[Drich]

No Drich, I want you to explain you how they aren't all related. It's more fun that way.
.

I DID IN POST 155!!

Go Back And Re-READ IT!

[catfish]

I read it, you supported my findings...

"The word in the Greek for neighbor here is: plēsion Which can mean every living being on the planet as Christ himself used the word. But in the more conventional sense it can simply mean countrymen. Now remember in Hebrews 8 Christ isn't speaking, nor are we speaking of a new precept where neighbors are to mean everyone. how do we know this for certain? (As you were so good to point out) This passage in Hebrews 8 is a throw back (word for word) to Jer 31:33 & 34 In that passage the word for neighbor in the Hebrew is: רע rea` Which is limited to country men in the broad usage of the term and close friends on the personal side."

Whether you want to assign the meaning to mean "every living being" or "countrymen", you are faced with the dilema of you excluding some of God's children. That's not for you to decide, now is it?
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