I have question for effeminate gay men. Why speak with a lisp? Is there a reason of some kind that you need to emulate a speech impediment? Hope my question isn't offensive, just curious.
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Current time: December 18, 2024, 1:53 pm
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A Question for Gay Men
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Probably something to do with high oestrogen levels - my guess.
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March 24, 2014 at 6:24 am
(This post was last modified: March 24, 2014 at 6:24 am by My imaginary friend is GOD.)
I'm pretty sure that in most cases when that is happening, that is just how they talk. Not sure if there is a REASON for it.
  RE: A Question for Gay Men
March 24, 2014 at 6:51 am
(This post was last modified: March 24, 2014 at 6:59 am by Darth.)
As a speechie student, here ya go:
http://speech-language-therapy.com/index...Itemid=117 Every single speech pathologist (if they can't be bothered doing the research themselves) will, in my experience, just pop over to Caroline Bowan's website for the answer. I wouldn't say that that guy from are you being served is of ambiguous sexuality, maybe it was never overtly stated, but whatever, cant be arsed.
Nemo me impune lacessit.
I have not studied this aspect in detail, but I do feel that sometimes I speak in a manner that reveals my sexuality even though I am unaware of it. Whether this manner is a lisp, I cannot state with certainty. All I know is that I often can discern, even with masculine gay men, whether he is gay or not by the way he speaks. As futile stated, I honestly think it is an unconscious way of speaking at times.
An impairment implies there is something wrong with speaking that way, and I think they only ones who would have a serious problem with the manner of speaking with a lisp are the homophobic ones who just about abhor anything to do with feminine gay men who flaunt their gayness.
"Never trust a fox. Looks like a dog, behaves like a cat."
~ Erin Hunter  (March 24, 2014 at 10:53 am)Kitanetos Wrote: An impairment implies there is something wrong with speaking that way, and I think they only ones who would have a serious problem with the manner of speaking with a lisp are the homophobic ones who just about abhor anything to do with feminine gay men who flaunt their gayness. I may be going out on a limb here but I do kinda have a 'problem' with these ultra feminine gay guys. I just don't understand how being gay can have an effect on both the pitch of someone's voice and whether or not they have a lisp. They're free to act how they want I'm not gay bashing, I just don't see how it can be a subconscious thing. 
I just don't see a problem with feminine guys or feminine features in guys, whether or not they are gay.
I've never understood being 'offended' by feminine guys. It just doesn't make any sense. Even if they 'choose' to be effeminate, what sense does it make to be upset about that? If they are doing it in order to identify with their community or to be identifiable to their community, then good for them. I just can't see any rational sense in it.
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