(October 12, 2013 at 10:28 pm)snowtracks Wrote: know

You keep using that word.

I do not think you know what it means.

(October 12, 2013 at 11:43 pm)Cthulhu Dreaming Wrote:

(October 12, 2013 at 10:28 pm)snowtracks Wrote: know

You keep using that word.

I do not think you know what it means.

my english teacher told us we couldn't use the phase in her classroom, "I don't think".

(October 13, 2013 at 12:16 am)snowtracks Wrote:

(October 12, 2013 at 11:43 pm)Cthulhu Dreaming Wrote: You keep using that word.

I do not think you know what it means.

my english teacher told us we couldn't use the phase in her classroom, "I don't think".

Obviously you missed the reference. Been living under a rock long?

In the context of "we know from the bible", sorry, we know no such thing. *You* claim to know it, and certainly may believe it - but claiming that 'we' know such a thing is patently false. *I* certainly know no such thing - as no one has been able to satisfactorily demonstrate that said book is a reliable source for anything.

(October 13, 2013 at 12:16 am)snowtracks Wrote: my english teacher told us we couldn't use the phase in her classroom, "I don't think".

Your loss, not ours. This only proves that the cunt didn't understand what an idiom is.

Just curious...any chance you were homeschooled and your teacher's name was 'Mom'?

(October 13, 2013 at 12:31 am)cato123 Wrote:

(October 13, 2013 at 12:16 am)snowtracks Wrote: my english teacher told us we couldn't use the phase in her classroom, "I don't think".

Your loss, not ours. This only proves that the cunt didn't understand what an idiom is.

Just curious...any chance you were homeschooled and your teacher's name was 'Mom'?

what's this 'ours'? like the atheist share atoms? ok, guess we have to move forward with that.

(October 12, 2013 at 10:28 pm)snowtracks Wrote: that speculation is beyond human discovery. biblically we do know that God is not ushered along with the one-directional cause and effect defined cosmic timeline since He can compress or accelerated the time velocity of it, and can initiate a cause on it that's in the past. so by logical necessity He has access to at least one other time dim, and possibly access to a plane of time that would connote access to multiple time dim's.

Ok, and evidence for any of that please?

Have you got confirmation from your version of god directly that the above is correct (bracketing out the idea that evidence even exists for it)?

Otherwise it just kind of seems like you're making stuff up.

Argument from Hovind fallacy.

Quote:that speculation is beyond human discovery. biblically we do know that God is not ushered along with the one-directional cause and effect defined cosmic timeline since He can compress or accelerated the time velocity of it, and can initiate a cause on it that's in the past. so by logical necessity He has access to at least one other time dim, and possibly access to a plane of time that would connote access to multiple time dim's.

``biblically we do know ``


well then , please backup that statement scientifically with godmath, godphysics, godquantummechanics and godcosmology

(October 10, 2013 at 10:11 am)SavedByGraceThruFaith Wrote: Where did the universe come from? Atheistic origin science has no answer.

The current “theory” is that the universe came into being from some explosion called the Big Bang. The standard Big Bang theory does not match smoothness of the cosmic background radiation. So the theory of Inflation was added to the standard Big Bang. That is the latest conjecture of modern science.

Now there are many problems with this “answer” to the origin of the universe. If nothing existed before the Big Bang, then the Big Bang violates a number of principle and laws of science. It violates conservation of mass-energy. The energy went from nothing to all the energy of the universe. It violates cause and effect. Nothing never just explodes and becomes something. It violates all observations, since nothing never just explodes into something. It also does not explain the origin of the laws of nature or why there is even order in the universe.

If something existed before the Big Bang, then the origin question is not answered at all. If the universe always existed, then the 2nd law of thermodynamics says that all order disappeared an infinite time ago. But that is not the case. Also there is still no explanation of the origin of the laws of nature or why there is even order in the universe.

You stupidly default to an anthropomorphic human like super hero. If a hurricane does not need Posiden to cause it, and lightening does not need Thor as it's cause, what makes you think your human concocted Kool Aid is needed as an explination?

(October 12, 2013 at 10:28 pm)snowtracks Wrote: biblically we do know that God is not ushered along with the one-directional cause and effect defined cosmic timeline since He can compress or accelerated the time velocity of it, and can initiate a cause on it that's in the past. so by logical necessity He has access to at least one other time dim, and possibly access to a plane of time that would connote access to multiple time dim's.

That sentence makes absolutely no sense, in the English language. Do you know when and how the past tense is correctly used ? Did you go to Grade School ? You also forgot to mention exactly how you know that "biblically", and you that, and you just happened to have left out the demonstration that the humans who cooked it up actually meant it, or had any conception of that notion. Proof by assertion is worthless.

Every single concept/idea in the Bible, is 100% culturally dependent. Every notion, law, proscription, and utterance.
There is no instance anywhere in the Bible, in which "de novo", concepts are presented, which did not exist, a priori, in the culture or within cultures with which they had contact. What you propose in that bullshit, something that is completely irrational, then you attempt, intellectually dishonestly, to make it sound like it could fit in the some universe as rational discourse, by throwing around terms you clearly have not a clue about. You also failed to demonstrate the mechanism. Time compression or dilation, would neither make something possible "in the past", or "reverse" the Second Law of Thermodynamics. The direction remains the same, regardless of velocity. Do consider, obtaining for yourself, an education.