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Why can't Christians say that parts of the Old Testament don't apply??..
#67
RE: Why can't Christians say that parts of the Old Testament don't apply??..
(October 18, 2010 at 11:11 am)DeistPaladin Wrote: Hey Thor, thanks for reminding me about his reference to Lev 17. Speaking of passages in the Bible that work against him.

Lev 17 discusses blood sacrifice and atonement, rather important for establishing the legitimacy of Christianity in the OT. Bold emphasis mine.

Lev 17:10-12 And whatsoever man there be of the house of Israel, or of the strangers that sojourn among you, that eateth any manner of blood; I will even set my face against that soul that eateth blood, and will cut him off from among his people. For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul. Therefore I said unto the children of Israel, No soul of you shall eat blood, neither shall any stranger that sojourneth among you eat blood.

This passage would seem to forbid the consumption of sacrificial blood. How can we square this with Jesus' admonishment?:

Matthew 26:27 And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

How can we justify the communion, which is the drinking of the blood of the "lamb of God" when the OT strictly forbids the practice?

Other admonishments of Lev 17 are hard to square with the NT.

17:5-6 To the end that the children of Israel may bring their sacrifices, which they offer in the open field, even that they may bring them unto the LORD, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, unto the priest, and offer them for peace offerings unto the LORD. And the priest shall sprinkle the blood upon the altar of the LORD at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and burn the fat for a sweet savour unto the LORD.

Can anyone point out to me in the NT where it discusses a priest being involved in the sacrifice of Jesus or where Jesus' blood was sprinkled on the altar?

Again you are trying to satisfy your on disbelief. First you have ignored what I brought up about this passage and secondly the sacrifices of the OT were done away with when Jesus was crucified so there's no need in trying to square the OT sacrifices with NT teachings. As for the last supper that wine was symbolic and there are many symbolic passages in the NT. Yes I can clearly point out the priests involvement and tell you about the altar you seemed to have misplaced. Mark 15:1-15, Matt.26:1-5, Matt.26:57-68, Matt.27:1-2, Matt.27:11-24 is this enough evidence of the priests involvement. The body of Jesus was the altar and the blood poured out of the Altar and the Altar was completely covered in blood. Jesus told the priest that the altar makes the gift sacred in Matt.23:18-19, Jesus being the altar makes the gift of salvation sacred.
God loves those who believe and those who do not and the same goes for me, you have no choice in this matter. That puts the matter of total free will to rest.
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RE: Why can't Christians say that parts of the Old Testament don't apply??.. - by Godschild - October 19, 2010 at 1:38 am

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