(August 6, 2015 at 8:10 pm)Rhondazvous Wrote: If my sense of morality came from god, that means my sense that rape, slavery and genocide came from god. How then can Christians claim that scriptures which instruct followers to engage in such acts are based on a higher moral authority?
How can anyone stay sane adhering to notions that fall apart so easily in the light of scrutiny?
Because things like rape, slavery, Genocide have no intrinsic moral value in of themselves. Meaning before God these acts are netural. What makes them ok or not ok is what God says about them/The situation that they are wrong or permissible.
For instance we/pop culture says Genocide is always bad. Now God says Genocide is a sin unless he commands it. (which has been done for several thousand years.) How can He then permit Genocide? Because He is in a position to know whether or not a person/people will be responsible for the premature destruction of this world.
Think about it. In OT times God's primary focus was the preservation of a single blood line in Israel so as His Son could be born and save the world from sin. If Israel was destroyed prematurally, or that blood line was somehow corrupt and prophesy could not be full filled, then their would be no hope for humanity. Per the example found in revelation when the cup of man's iniquity is full, God puts an end to Man's reign.
So the question then becomes, end one people? Or end the whole race?
