(August 14, 2015 at 1:54 pm)abaris Wrote: Yet there is no moral law for me and, without assuming to speak for everyone else, for most, if not all, atheists. There's only the moral consensus of the particular society we're living in. Ever changing from age to age and region to region. And there's individual decency or lack thereoff.Two problems.
We had that kind of discussion about a million times already. But to clarify - I'm not the least bit interested in the law Jesus supposedly spoke of. My point always was what I said above.
First, if moral relativity is true, then no atheist can judge God on the basis of morality. The last of the bible was written about 2000 years ago, and the OT before then. According to your moral standard each command or law in the Bible could only be determined to be moral or immoral by viewing it within the context of "the moral consensus of the particular society living" at the time. It would go as follows:
[I'm not endorsing the following propositions as true, but for the sake of argument]
If slavery [regardless as to how it is defined] was an accepted practice 7000 years ago then it was by your definition moral.
If God endorsed slavery 7000 years ago, then it would have been considered moral to do so.
The only way to make a moral objection to the things of past, by the moral standard of the present, would necessarily result in abandoning the standard of moral relativity.
And this leads to the second problem. Ultimately, moral relativity doesn't make sense. By this, I'm not saying that I don't understand it, I'm saying if we assume moral relativity is true, then there is no morality, just a fiat assertion of morality ad populum.
If it could be proven beyond doubt that God exists...
and that He is the one spoken of in the Bible...
would you repent of your sins and place your faith in Jesus Christ?