Gods immorality.

[SteveII]

God commanded the recognized intermediary leader of a theocracy (Moses, Joshua, or a judge--depending on what story you want to use), to carry out a battle strategy in a brutal time and in a brutal land.

You also are ignoring the context. For example, the 1 Samuel 15 story

2 This is what the Lord Almighty says: ‘I will punish the Amalekites for what they did to Israel when they waylaid them as they came up from Egypt. 3 Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy[a] all that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkeys.’”

In case you don't know of the first encounter with the Amalekites when the killed the women and children at the back of the migrating Israelites:

Deuteronomy 25:17–19-- 17 “Remember what Amalek did to you son the way as you came out of Egypt, 18 how he attacked you on the way when you were faint and weary, and cut off your tail, those who were lagging behind you, and he did not fear God. 19 Therefore when the Lord your God has given you rest from all your enemies around you, in the land that the Lord your God is giving you for an inheritance to possess, you shall blot out the memory of Amalek from under heaven; you shall not forget.

So, to address you question as to what was different between a woman killing her own child and this story...quite a bit actually. 

You keep trying to deflect the question with caveats.  WLC said, point blank, that if god orders something to be done, then those orders are good/moral because god is the embodiment of good and cannot act against his nature.  You concurred.  The context of the orders is irrelevant.  It doesn't matter if it's the leader of a theocracy receiving the orders or some random woman.  It doesn't matter if it happened in the ancient Middle East or modern USA.  God is absolute, remember?  He's supposed to transcend any particular context, and his word is law.  Again, that's what WLC said he lives by, and you agreed.

So, were those women right to murder their kids because god ordered them to?  It's a very simple question, one you should be able to answer directly.

No, the women were not right in murdering their kids. You asked why this is different. I explained. The context is not irrelevant, it is crucial. God announced why he was issuing the command ahead of time (even speaking about this very topic 400 years earlier). 

Yes, God is absolute. His commands are absolute. Over the millennium, he has revealed himself and messages in different ways. Way back he spoke to people (judges, prophets, priests, kings).  Then he spoke through Christ and the apostles--leaving a new set of instructions to live by. The current revelation is good from here on out. That revelation centers around forgiveness, love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, self control and a personal relationship with God. Since killing innocent people would be a contradiction to the last and final revelation from God, it can be firmly established that the message was not from God.