(July 6, 2016 at 12:26 pm)Redbeard The Pink Wrote: Besides, the laws about slavery were not related to the atonement of sin, so they're unaffected by your little quibble anyway. According to Christian doctrine, the only laws largely affected by that are sacrificial laws, penal laws, and dietary laws. The laws governing slaves do not fall into any of those categories.
So, once again, you have zero Biblical basis for the assertion that slavery is immoral. Slavery is overtly allowed and regulated by both Testaments, and it is a direct contradiction of scripture to suggest otherwise. You have yet to present a convincing case to the contrary, and every dodge you're trying is just making you look bad. There is no amount of bending that gets you around the parts of your book that say "Slavery is allowed, and here is how slavery is supposed to work."
Civil laws and their penalties governing a theocracy are very much only for the OT nation of Israel. You admit that 'penal laws' were only for that time. Does it make sense that the detailed law on which the penalty rests is somehow immune to the effect? Since there was not a command to own slaves, we can't transfer that over to the bucket of "moral laws" and have it survive the NT effect that the rest of the law was affected by.
I will repeat, I think there are good grounds to conclude from Jesus' teachings that forced slavery is immoral.