(July 28, 2016 at 9:09 pm)Huggy74 Wrote: Here's the thing, the conception of Jesus was an A-sexual event (which is a thing in nature, look it up). God doesn't need help to create, but reason that God used Mary in this manner is that way back in Genesis he said that the woman would have a seed, I suppose that i don't have to tell you guys that only men have "seed". Jesus was the woman's seed.
The scriptures cannot be broken.
This was to fulfill the law of the kinsman redeemer. In Hebrew law, if a person lost his possessions, or sold himself into servitude, then a relative could come and buy it or him back.
Jesus is our kinsman redeemer, he came to buy back all that Adam had lost with his own blood (Jesus was neither Jew or Gentile, his blood was the creative blood of God), there for he had to be born of a woman just like we were, which makes him human and therefore related to us, if he'd just came down from heaven, then he'd have no relation to us, and that would break the scriptures.
The scriptures were written after the fact, Huggy. God was perfectly capable of forgiving a debt without having his son killed for it.
Back to the OP, asexual or not why would it be okay for God to impregnate a woman without her knowledge or consent?
