What philosophical evidence is there against believing in non-physical entities?

[Panatheist]

I had edited my previous post and then saw this reply, but I don't think the changes were that substantial except a note I included at the bottom about why I think I was not daydreaming.

I didn't go back and say *maybe* I was day dreaming as long as it's an altered state.  I mentioned day dreaming as an example of an altered state because you had excluded it as qualifying as one and did not define what you considered to be an altered state of mind.  But it is one even according to the definition you provided.  Day dreaming occurs in the theta wave state.

No, you didn't say that, I did....just trying to negotiate an equitable split.  

Really, by your argument it would be unsupportable for me to ever claim to have day dreamed since I could not at the time measure my brain to determine if I was in the theta brain wave state.

You -would- be unable to support it, but I can accept that you daydream.  

I am having trouble with the quote button not being as familiar with this forum.  You made a statement a few posts back I took to be a reference to subjective states although perhaps you were referring only to physical changes in the brain which unlike reported subjective states are demonstrable and with which I would agree:

"Yes, there is, you referenced it yourself, in that altered states have been recorded.  There's no way for -you- to do so because you are referring to anecdotes.  You did not have any equipment available.  As such I can't know that they -were- altered states in the sense you previously referenced, and neither can you."

I have been describing experiences especially those involving unusual audial and visual perceptions as altered states.  Hallucinations are mentioned as examples of altered states in psychological literature, but no, I cannot prove that I was not in the Beta state.  I have had an EEG scan before which did detect unusual electrical activity during a time when I was having some less intense unusual perceptual experiences, although I do not know what it involved.

If I understand your argument correctly it seems to me that no one should claim that (s)he has ever experienced an altered state, even day dreaming, without having their brain activity measured during that experience.

That would be incorrect.   I can dismiss your attribution because you have failed to verify it, had no means to verify it, and made poor inferences to arrive at it as a conclusion.  It has nothing to do with whether or not you've ever experienced an altered state...whether or not you've ever daydreamed...none of that.  It's a poor attribution, with only your anecdote to go on.  This is what is being dismissed.

The attribution of the experience to an altered state?  I specifically used the term altered state to describe very unusual perceptual phenomena and said that anything I am experiencing subjectively including such perceptual phenomena must have a physical correlation to a state in the brain.  I didn't say what brain state or that I knew what brain state, just that there has to be a correlate in the brain to anything I am aware of.  I don't know what else could be said about that or what an atheist who doesn't believe in the supernatural could disagree with about that, honestly.

And I'm still not sure why day dreams are being treated differently in this discussion even though they actually fit the definition you have recently given.