RE: Was Muhammad a Pedophile?
June 2, 2011 at 2:02 pm
(This post was last modified: June 2, 2011 at 2:07 pm by Violet.)
(June 2, 2011 at 6:32 am)tackattack Wrote: And what is the practical use difference between intersubjective and an objective moral standard?
Not everyone sees an intersubjective standard. A group of ants in an anthill hold the intersubjective belief that all other ants are out to kill them. A group of humans living in the house down the way hold the intersubjective belief that the ants are all up to no good.
Subjective beliefs (of a person). If these are similar of a group of people: intersubjective beliefs (of a group). If all groups and all people hold the exact same beliefs: objective beliefs.
Hence the required distinction
(June 2, 2011 at 12:00 pm)Rayaan Wrote:(June 2, 2011 at 4:29 am)Aerzia Saerules Arktuos Wrote: Also, the bible/koran is an intersubjective morality, not an objective morality (you will notice I don't hold it).
That would be correct, if you believe that the morals in the Bible and Quran are man-made.
On the other hand, I do agree with you that the element of subjectivity cannot be taken away completely even if the morals came from God, because believers may interpret their scriptures differently from each other, or interpret a specific verse in a book differently, since all interpretations are basically a subjective labor.
Even God(s) have a viewpoint. To see all as Akylios does is to be a thing beyond madness, for which there are no words and there remains no semblance of anything sensible. And even that thing, which holds all viewpoints, holds the subjective view of everything as everything as everything as everything.
Objectivity requires all.
Please give me a home where cloud buffalo roam
Where the dear and the strangers can play
Where sometimes is heard a discouraging word
But the skies are not stormy all day
