(January 26, 2017 at 5:53 am)Wyrd of Gawd Wrote:(January 26, 2017 at 5:11 am)Firefighter01 Wrote: [hide]
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There is one specific passage where the phrase "according to the Scriptures" is used:
1 Corinthians 15:3-4 (KJV) = "For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:"
There are several other passages that refer to Scriptures.
Sure, but what scriptures? If he even existed, he couldn't have been referring to the Gospels as they hadn't been written yet. He couldn't be referring to the Jewish Bible (or the OT) as it doesn't mention JC dying for our sins. If he was referring to his own holy writings, that would be blasphemous. So what scriptures do you reckon he was talking about?
