(May 16, 2017 at 10:23 am)mh.brewer Wrote:(May 16, 2017 at 10:21 am)SteveII Wrote: THat does not change the fact that redefining free will so that it is impossible for a person to have it is not proof that a person does not have free will.
The definition of omniscient god eliminates the possibility of free will. Why do you have a problem with other peoples definitions?
Depends on God's source of omniscience. I think it is derived from his middle knowledge (defined as God knows without error what we will freely choose to do because he knows every fact and factor up to that point and what we would choose in any circumstance--including counterfactuals) and not because he has been to the future and seen it happen.
