(December 4, 2018 at 2:17 pm)Drich Wrote:(December 4, 2018 at 2:14 pm)DeistPaladin Wrote: I have. Luke's name for Herod Antipas is "Herod the Tetrarch" not "Herod, King of Judea".
And as the link i provided states both titles are equally valid. meaning there is nothing that says luke could not have used either or both.
Textural evidence. Luke uses the term "tetrarch" when he specifies he's speaking of Antipas (Luke 9:7). You ASSUME his earlier reference to "King of Judea" is a reference to Antipas and not Herod the Great but that would have been inconsistent of Luke.
Prove that Luke used the term "king of Judea" to refer to Antipas.
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