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How do theists justify the translations of the scriptures?
#38
RE: How do theists justify the translations of the scriptures?
(October 10, 2019 at 12:03 am)Rev. Rye Wrote:
(October 4, 2019 at 3:34 pm)Drich Wrote: There is another term that intellectually honest people use.

Provenance. 1900 years of written consistency, out of a possible 1925 years of written history.

Consistency? In all those 25,000 manuscripts, there are thousands of different textual variations. One recent study estimated as many as HALF A MILLION different textual variations. Granted, the vast majority of them are fairly minor, but there’s at least one instance where we can actually see scribes messing with the text to further their own agenda. And that instance in particular is important because it’s the only explicit reference to the Trinity in the Bible. And noticing the textual differences in the Bible isn’t a new phenomenon. Origen actually wrote about the many textual variants floating about when he wrote his commentaries on the Gospels. And that was in the Third Century. Not quite 1925 years of unbroken consistency.

what dishonesty or sheer ignorance.

Aramaic was the spoken language one without an official written text. 

 Which means when translating aramic to the greek where there are no set spelling or words for or not words to even directly translate to. I take for granted in knowing how things simply get lost in translation being able to somewhat speak a second language. espically one with no common root. 

So in a sense Aramaic is a spoken slange that was contextually translated. if you look at the contextual translations the numbers of variances go way way down however if you want to stack the numbers against the bible you look at textual variances. there could be millions simply because there was no set spelling or not set translation from the slang that was aramaic to the set standard of the koine greek.
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RE: How do theists justify the translations of the scriptures? - by Drich - October 14, 2019 at 1:29 pm

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