Did Jesus drink wine or grape juice?

[Drich]

there are two words in the koine greek. where ever the phrase 'fruit of the vine' or 'new wine' is used it means 'grape juice.' (new wine grape juice exposed to yeast) and where the bible says wine it means alcoholic wine.

So, I decided to try and test that claim. Looking through Strong's Concordance, I found exactly three Greek nouns translated as "wine" that appear in the New Testament.

• Oinos, which means wine. It is used 34 times. Pretty straightforward.
  
• Oxos, which means vinegar, but is actually commonly believed to be an imperfect Greek translation of a drink called Posca, (this is actually a common mistranslation used by Plutarch as well as the Gospel writers because Greek lacked a word for the drink) which is basically a mix of vinegar, water, and maybe some herbs. Used six times.
  
• Gleukos, which is translated as "new wine." This appears exactly once, and in a context that severely undermines Drich's exegesis. It happens in Acts 2:13, a reaction to the apostles speaking in all the different languagaes of the world, and while some looked on in amazement and perplexity, (and I'm using the Amplified Bible for this) " But others were laughing and joking and ridiculing them, saying, “They are full of sweet wine and are drunk!” Many translations don't add "and are drunk," but the context remains clear: they think the Apostles are drunk when they speak all these foreign languages.
  

And then you mentioned "fruit of the vine." I found nine verses in the New Testament that used both those words, and in only three of them does it seem to refer to a drink: Matthew 26:29, Mark 14:25, and Luke 22:18, each time said by Jesus during the Last Supper after the disciples had all "drunk his blood," saying that he would not drink the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God came and he drank it with the disciples again. And since it's pretty explicitly described in each account as a feast for the first day of passover (read: the Seder), and one of the rituals of the Seder involves drinking four cups' worth of wine (which most branches of Judaism TO THIS DAY explicitly state must be alcoholic except when the drinker is either a child [who has yet to go through the Bar Mitzvah] or if the drinker will get sick if served alcohol), plus the fact that non-alcoholic grape juice was only made a viable drink 151 years ago, the likelihood that "fruit of the vine" referred to something non-alcoholic in the time of Christ becomes vanishingly rare.

let start with fruit of the vine as found in mat 26 Mark14 and luke22... in this context it literally means the fruit that come from the vine. as in unaltered, we know this because vinegar is a version of fermented grape and he has was given that on the cross. He declared he would not have fruit of the vine which is him saying he would not take anything to do with grapes as a whole food. (wine and vinegar being processed grape/not whole unchanged from the vine.) . https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/s...rimary_0_1

Fruit:†γέννημα génnēma, ghen'-nay-mah; from ; offspring; by analogy, produce (literally or figuratively):—fruit, generation.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lex...1081&t=KJV

then of the vine:https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lex...1081&t=KJV
ἄμπελος ámpelos, am'-pel-os; probably from the base of G297 and that of ; a vine (as coiling about a support):—vine.

we know wine is different as it has it's own word and if christ mean alcoholic wine he would have used this word:
οἶνος oînos, oy'-nos; a primary word (or perhaps of Hebrew origin ()); "wine" (literally or figuratively):—wine.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lex...3631&t=KJV

which is different than new wine as out lined in:mat 9 mark 14, and luke 22. new wine differs from old wine as this parable states it contains yeast and will expand, which is the reason for the warning of not putting new wine in old wine skins as old wine skins do not have the ability to flex with the build up of gass/co2. meaning if you put new wine in an old wine skin it will likely burst during the transformation from fruit of the vine to wine.

†νέος néos, neh'-os; including the comparative νεότερος neóteros neh-o'-ter-os; a primary word; "new", i.e. (of persons) youthful, or (of things) fresh; figuratively, regenerate:—new, young. https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lex...3501&t=KJV

So there you have it. wine is used to get someone drunk or in scripture tells us not to drink wine till drunkarness. "The pharse New wine is used to describe grape juice in the process, verses grapes, verse wine with alcohol. meaning wine contains
alcohol.  New wine has yet to undergo fermentation process. (what causes old wine skins to burst when filled with new wine) you established vinegar being different still. then fruit of the vine meaning grapes or grape juice. as no fermentation or any processing is mentioned with this definition, but rather describes a whole food from the vine/unchanged from the vine.

maybe Rev you could pm me with your venture into exegesis and i could fill you in with the proper answers before you go off and completely make a fool of yourself. in that you look pretty stupid because you didn't even know the verses i am quoting and the literary content that could have been extrapolated from the english text as in these cases was the whole point of the parable.

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So, I decided to try and test that claim. Looking through Strong's Concordance, I found exactly three Greek nouns translated as "wine" that appear in the New Testament.

• Oinos, which means wine. It is used 34 times. Pretty straightforward.
  
• Oxos, which means vinegar, but is actually commonly believed to be an imperfect Greek translation of a drink called Posca, (this is actually a common mistranslation used by Plutarch as well as the Gospel writers because Greek lacked a word for the drink) which is basically a mix of vinegar, water, and maybe some herbs. Used six times.
  
• Gleukos, which is translated as "new wine." This appears exactly once, and in a context that severely undermines Drich's exegesis. It happens in Acts 2:13, a reaction to the apostles speaking in all the different languagaes of the world, and while some looked on in amazement and perplexity, (and I'm using the Amplified Bible for this) " But others were laughing and joking and ridiculing them, saying, “They are full of sweet wine and are drunk!” Many translations don't add "and are drunk," but the context remains clear: they think the Apostles are drunk when they speak all these foreign languages.
  

Is there a specific word for grape juice in Greek or is "wine" used interchangeably with alcohol and juice depending on the context?

where ever the bible says fruit of the vine, it meant as grapes or grape juice.

new wine is unferment treated with yeast to become wine.

wine is full on wine.

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Here’s the closest thing I could find. The word’s history remains obscure to me and possibly to scholars.

I also found another Greek word that’s been known to have the same meaning, Tryz, and is Known to come from before the writing of the gospels. Unfortunately for drich, the closest form that appears in the Bible is related to picking grapes and not consuming them. Gleukos is also attested for, but its sole appearance in the Bible has a pretty clear connection to drunkenness.

You are what happens when a person suffering from dunning kruger thinks he can reverse engineer an exegetical explanation. while you can find greek word, they may not always be koine greek and even if you find koine greek words they may not coincide with biblical use. if you look at your strong's there usually two different definition of a given word. one being the greek variant and the other being biblical usage. remember greek was not being used in it's purest form but rather as a substituatory written language for a 3rd language/aramaic. imagine your use of english verse someone how spoke japanese as a primary language but used englished to write down their thoughts. you would have a 80 to 90% over lap where the writer who was well educated means what he says and then there would be that 10% that is just lost to translation or word typically not used would be used to align with the host language. which sport is why you can't reverse engineer an exegetical pov without all the correlating verses and their information. you need to have an understanding of how the passage is first used in scripture before you can break it down. yours is a rookie error of greek being greek.