Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty?

[Belacqua]

Might help to provide references to primary sources just so we're clear first on what they actually say, rather than what certain people with an agenda claim they say.

I heard an interesting podcast last night with terms that might be relevant.

https://shwep.net/podcast/methodologies-...-of-magic/

This guy studies magic and hermeticism as a historical/sociological field. He doesn't claim to do magic.

He goes into detail about "first order" terms and "second order" terms. First order type are the ones used by the group that's being studied. Second order are the ones used by the researchers. Which sounds pretty simple, but you can see how misunderstandings could easily arise.

For example he claims that in the old days, no group claimed to do magic. Magic is something your enemies or heretics did. So it becomes problematic when a modern researcher uses the term magic -- the mental categories are different. I was thinking that a term like "sin" might have a narrow technical meaning for, say, ancient Hebrews that gets fuzzed up when modern people talk about sin. That's certainly true with the word "cause," as we saw on the other thread.

I'm thinking this may be relevant to the topic here. What modern people refer to as a god or a savior or a messiah, etc., may get blended inappropriately when talking about long-ago cultures. Especially when (as is evident) people are trying to prove something about a religion they dislike.