(August 21, 2023 at 7:15 am)FrustratedFool Wrote: Isn't the idea of an omnimalevolent God as reasonable as an omnibenevolent God, and doesn't a reverse theodicy work just as well to justify the problem of good as the problem of evil?
And if so, isn't this a reductio ad absurdum argument against theism?
If you posit that God is omnimalevolent, I suppose you'd have to solve a reverse version of Epicurus's challenge:
Is God willing to prevent good, but not able? Then he is not omnipotent.
Is he able to prevent good, but not willing? Then he is not malevolent.
Is he both able and willing? Then whence cometh good things?
Is he neither able nor willing? Then why call him God?
