Quote:(November 22, 2024 at 7:31 am)Belacqua Wrote: What objective evidence do we have that an individual's gender differs from their biological sex?
I've answered this more than once already, so I am not sure why you keep repeating the question?
You've asserted that the evidence exists.
Quote:The experience is subjective, but there is objective evidence that pain exists.
That's certainly true. Though later in the thread we hear that some people don't feel pain and might fake it.
We do not feel another person's pain. We observe their reactions and (very properly) assume that what they are feeling is like what we feel when we feel pain.
Skin conduction, etc., are not pain. They are associated with pain. So we have objective evidence that something is happening, and given our experience we are reasonable to think that their pain is like our pain. This is what intersubjectivity means.