(July 10, 2009 at 2:02 am)Dharan Wrote: Hi, I am not very good in physics, and even worse in cosmology. However, I often ponder origins of the universe
1. I am wondering if someone can help me understand why we have 'something' instead of 'nothing at all'. I cant follow the Stephen Hawking arguments. I'm sure this topic has been discussed ad infinitum. But hoping someone will get me up to speed.
Thanks,
Dharan
Because we can't have 'nothing'. Where would 'nothing' be? By very definition 'nothing' is the absence of all existence and so cannot in itself exist.
Therefore, 'something' must exist and it must have existed for all time, because without 'something' time has no meaning and therefore cannot exist either.
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