John's Gospel and "The Jews"

[DeistPaladin]

The verses you have presented do indeed show that there was a separation between Jesus, his disciples and the Jewish nation and I believe there is a reason for this, probably more, but we'll stay with your premise, the gospel was written several years after Christ's time on earth but, in the same century.

Several years? No. Mark, the first of the series, was written after 70 CE according to Christian apologists themselves (in reality, it could have been later but we'll take the Christians' word for it for now).

My contention is that John was written much later, as in 2nd century at the earliest.

By what is stated in the book of Acts the growth of Christianity took off and grew extremely fast in a very short time with many Gentiles as part of Christianity.

See my new thread on the nonsense of Acts. You must either be crazy or immediately dismiss Acts as mythology after just reading the book once.

John also had time to look back on those years and see what had transpired. The Christians also viewed themselves as christian and not as a nationality, read the books Paul wrote and I think you will see this. So I believe that it would be only natural that John used the word Jews in the way he did.

Especially since he came along much later when Christianity had developed. The story got better with the telling. John the Baptist became increasingly subservient with each Gospel, Pilate more reluctant to crucify Jesus and Jesus more one with Yahweh. Trinitarian concepts apparently had not come along until John was penned, as they certainly don't exist in the Synoptic Gospels.

All this I will cover in more detail in my John vs. the Synoptics thread (stay tuned).