(August 14, 2009 at 4:42 pm)Eilonnwy Wrote: Because you can be aroused with the right stimulus even if you're not attracted to that person.
Yeah I can understand that. I just don't know how you could be willing to go along with it. I'm not saying 'therefore it is incorrect' remember. So I'm not comitting a fallacy here.
Quote:And how do I know Gay men have been married? Because guys come out all the time.
http://gaylife.about.com/od/lovesexadvic...arried.htm
http://gaylife.about.com/od/gaysexadvice...tation.htm
Yeah, but does that mean they necessarily weren't at least subconsciously attracted enough to the opposite sex to engage in intercourse with them?
Once again I'm not saying you're wrong. I just don't get it.
EvF