(April 19, 2012 at 10:05 pm)Rhythm Wrote: Original greek manuscripts? Would that make your religion greek? There you go again, dismissing those who ask questions which lead to inconvenient answers. Troll.
again basic understanding failure, the root cause being information was missing from your understanding of the origins of Christianity more over the origins of the bible itself. so rather than ask what Greek had to do with the bible, you pushed what you wanted to believe.
This is what happens when I present complete intact concepts without any ground work that supports the final conclusion. That is why I spend so much time focused on definitions, and trying to bring basic concepts to light. Subsequently this is also the reason conversations stop and you reach for the troll label every time we can not push past basic comprehension.
(Why you do not think I do not understand or can communicate what it is i believe)
Here is your missing ground work: 1st century Israel was under the rule of Rome in the time of Christ (and for several hundred years after.) The written language of Rome was Koine Greek. The original manuscripts that the bible were compiled from were written in Koine Greek. It wasn't till the 3rd or 4th century that they were translated into Latin (So the church leadership could "interpret" in secret scripture in away conducive to their doctrine. Because no one outside of the 'church' could read or write that dead language.) That means if we are using the original Greek to interpret scripture. then none of the changes the Ralphie suggested are possible. Why? Because the texts were completed before any of the suggested changes were made.