Same sex marriage

[StatCrux]

I do fully understand, you don't. Infertile couples do not invalidate the principle of male-female unions being open to procreation. I'm not saying that all unions must be capable of procreation, I'm saying that in principle the definition of marriage is a procreative union. Individual extreme or special cases do not invalidate the argument.

Why not? If the validity of the principle does not rely on its universal applicability then by definition that argument is invalidated.

So if I make a statement of "men have a penis, women have a vagina" using your logic one man without a penis would invalidate the statement? Is that what you are proposing? I've seen this reasoning before....