RE: First extract of Richard Dawkins new book.
September 9, 2009 at 5:39 pm
(This post was last modified: September 9, 2009 at 5:40 pm by Violet.)
(September 9, 2009 at 5:18 pm)Kyuuketsuki Wrote:(September 9, 2009 at 3:59 pm)Saerules Wrote:(September 9, 2009 at 3:38 pm)Kyuuketsuki Wrote: And I repeat Saer ... show me one thing that is pretty much universally accepted based on pure logic. 1 equals 1 is an assumption that is borne out by the fact that other stuff based on it works, much like the assumption that the universe is real.
If one did not equal one, then the universe would rapidly become nothingness, or oneness. Shown here: 1=2, everything continuously multiplies until everything becomes a single mass. Shown here: 1=.5, everything divides into halves until it reaches the fundamental particles of the universe and disintegrates entirely. Therefore 1 must = 1. This proves why it is true in our universe. Beyond this... this proves why it is true in every universe preceding ours (i.e. Even if someone is playing us as a video game: they too fall under this rule.)
Actually there is some speculation that there must be universes where 1 = 5 ... don't ask me how but I read it somewhere.
Anyway, you never answered my question ... what has philosophy ever proven alone (without empirical testing)?
Kyu
If that doesn't answer your question, then i am afraid you are dodging my answer. In any universe in which 1 ≠ 1: the universe is either one mass, or it is a void. Have i not proven that our universe is applicable to 1=1, and every universe that could possibly precede ours is also the same? That i have proven with philosophy.
Please give me a home where cloud buffalo roam
Where the dear and the strangers can play
Where sometimes is heard a discouraging word
But the skies are not stormy all day