A Real and Significant Biblical Contradiction?

[spockrates]

True philosophers™, that anythinBg like a True Christian™? You really need to brush up on the hows, whys, and whos of greek philosophy. Sophist became a negatively charged word in the same way that communist did....they did not originally mean what we know use the words to convey. Bit like Platos strawmen of others arguments disguised as the character of Socrates.

Let me just throw something out there. Philosopher gets ass handed to him in debate-proceeds to write a nasty screed about the people who handed him his ass. Is some part of this surprising?

Wise I would not call them. For that title is too great and belongs to God alone. Lovers of wisdom (or philosophers) is a more fitting description.

--Socrates (Phaedrus)

Since many sophists sought only to win arguments and cared not which side of the argument they were on, I'd say that they indeed were not true philosophers. They had no love lost for wisdom, and the word philosopher in Greek meant a lover of wisdom.

Also, I believe Christian should have a registered trademark. Anyone can trademark anything and agree that someone else can do the same. Only a registered trademark has teeth. Protestants and Catholics and others all believe they have exclusive rights to the word!

:p

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OK, so I'll go out on limb, here. I'll say that the only way I personally see that the understandings of the two passages quoted in the OP are not in conflict would be this: The word deceive in Ezekiel does not mean the same as the word lie in Hebrews. It's comparing apples to oranges, and so no contradiction really exists.

Christians: Any disagreements? Is there a better way to defend against the accusation of contradiction? (Or would you care to answer the questions I've already asked about your alternate suggestions?)

Atheists: Do you disagree? Is there any way to demonstrate that every deception is a lie? Or will you show that the deception of the first passage cited in the OP is the same kind as the lie which is impossible for God to tell in the second passage cited? (It's understood you don't believe God exists. The question is whether the picture of God painted by the OT author contradicts the picture of him painted by the NT author.)

Anyone: Please let us know what you think. We're trying to determine if there is a genuine contradiction, here. Or if you could care less, sorry to disappoint by the choice of topic!