A Real and Significant Biblical Contradiction?

[spockrates]

@ Spockrates, I agree that the two verses are not a contradiction, I also agree that deception is not always lying, it can be a strategy. However as I've said and continue to, in Ezekiel God is not directly deceiving the prophet, God allows the prophet to be deceived by his own prophecy through his vanity. God does not reveal the true to the prophet, this is to punish the prophet because the prophet is deceiving Israel.

Yes, I understand what you believe, but (please forgive me for being so slow to catch on) I still don't understand why you believe. I'm having trouble seeing how these words,

"... I the LORD have deceived that prophet..."

can mean anything but the LORD had deceived the prophet. The only way this might be true would be if the biblical translators King James commissioned translated the verse wrong, I think. What do you think? Should we look at a more modern translation to see if it clears it up for me?

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?sea...ersion=KJV

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"Lying isn't always lying, especially if it's god doing it" "It's a different kind of deception, and it's okay because god is doing it" "It was okay for god to be deceptive because someone else was being deceptive"

oh, and for you Clive...."Mysterious ways, except that I'm not saying that, but no... seriously.....mysterious ways"

Guys..there isn't any contradiction. It's a different god, a different narrative, and they both happen to be fictional to begin with. They couldn't contradict each other if they tried. See how easy that was?

But would you say your interpretation of the fictional story of Ezekiel contradicts your interpretation of the fictional story of Hebrews? Or are you interpreting both to say it is possible for the God they imagined to lie?