A Real and Significant Biblical Contradiction?

[Godscreated]

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This is from the New American Standard, this is the translation I use when studying, it is considered the most accurate translation by most scholars. I knew I should have gone and read the verses that go along with this verse, sorry I got lazy instead of looking for the truth.
Ezekiel 14:9"But if the prophet is prevailed upon to speak a word, it is I, the LORD, who have prevailed upon that prophet, and I will stretch out My hand against him and destroy him from among My people Israel.
The verse is actually saying that God urges the prophet to speak according to this translation.
The ESV uses the word deceive also and I do not know what word the NIV uses in this verse, I seldom use the NIV now.
If you read verses 1-11 I believe that verse 9 will make more sense to you. I read it this way, many in Israel were worshiping false idols (gods) and then they would go before a self proclaimed prophet, and ask that prophet what God has to say. God then urged the prophet to speak his false words to these people, so that He could punish all that were involved in idolatry. Ezekiel is one book I do need to study more, it is a book of judgement and can be difficult.

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It is likely more accurate than the King James version, but the choice of words is so--19th century. Let's also consider one of the most popular versions of the 21st century--Today's New International Version:


9 “‘And if the prophet is enticed to utter a prophecy, I the Lord have enticed that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against him and destroy him from among my people Israel.'"

(Ezekiel 14:9)

It seems, then that the deception of Ezekiel might be described as God prevailing against the one who misrepresented himself as God's spokesperson, and he prevailed by enticing the imposter in some way. Do you agree? If so, in what way did God entice the false prophet?

I'm thinking that the context of the surrounding verses paints a picture of a the fake prophet deceiving the Jewish people by assuring them that they will be able to defend themselves against the invading military forces. This contradict's God's message that they will not prevail against them. So in what way would you say God deceived, prevailed against, or enticed the false prophet?

Yes I agree, prevail can carry the same meaning as entice and I believe in this case entice is probably the better word, it makes the verse easier to understand.

As for those who think that modern translations are there to cover up anything are showing their ignorance. They do not study the process of modern translation and that we find the meaning to words that the KJ translators did not know and had to make an intelligent guess.